Which has the higher probability?
by Phil van Bergen
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The proofs of deist religions are contained within scripture and personal revelation (a one-to-one with God or gods). Scripture itself, however, is nothing more than personal revelation to one individual who is taken as an authority.
Given that all deist religions use the same proof, why is it that they reach totally different conclusions?
Unless God is whatever one wants to make Him (which presupposes Him to be a figment of the imagination), the probability of all these different conclusions being correct is zero.
There is the possibility that one of these traditions is correct and the rest are incorrect, however, this raises the question of why the others are incorrect, despite using the same proofs.
There is also the possibility that all are incorrect.
Of these last two possibilities, which has the higher probability?